AtoZ Medical Interview Questions, AtoZ Medical Multiple Choice Questions

1. A patient arrives at the ED with a blood sugar of 578, serum osmolarity of 300, pH of 7.3, severe thirst, dehydration, and confusion.  The patient is breathing rapidly and has a fruity breath smell.  This patient has symptoms of......
     A.    Diabetic ketoacidosis 
     B.    hyperosmolar hyperglycemic noketotic coma
     C.    Hypoglycemia
     D.    diabetic neuropathy
Ans: A
 
2.    What are the micro vascular complications of uncontrolled diabetes?
     A.    Delayed gastric emptying 
     B.    Diarrhea
     C.    Glomuerular injury 
     D.    Bleeding of retinal caplillaries 
     E.    Numbness of feet
     F.    Impotence 
Ans: B,E
 
3.    The newly diagnosed diabetic patient asks the nurse why he needs to check his feet every day.  The nurse's best response is....

     A.    To prevent leg amputation.
     B.    To check for any cuts, sores, or dry cracked skin so they can be treated early to prevent infection or gangrene. 
     C.    To see if they hurt.
     D.    You just need to do it.
Ans: B
 
4.    What are Macro vascular complications of uncontrolled diabetes?
    
     A.    Pain in lower legs
     B.    Hyperlipidemia 
     C.    Impotence
     D.    Ischemic heart disease 
     E.    Aortic disection
Ans: B,D
 
5.    The nurse enters a patient's room and sees the patient breathing rapidly with a fruity breath smell.  This is known as...
    
     A.    Trousseau's
     B.    Cullen's
     C.    Kussmaul's 
     D.    Bitot's
Ans: C
 
6.    A patient with severe hypoglycemia arrives at the ED unconscious by ambulance.  The nurse would first...
    
     A.    Give regular insulin by IV
     B.    Give NPH by IV
     C.    Give 10-15 g CHO or Orange juice
     D.    Give 1 mg glucagon 
Ans: D
 
7.    The diabetic patient's lab work comes back with a pH of 7.4, serum blood sugar of 950, serum osmolarity of 460, pCO2 of 35, HCO3 of 25.  The patient is confused and dehydrated.  This patient is showing signs and symptoms of....
    
     A.    Diabetic ketoacidosis
     B.    hyperosmolar hyperglycemic noketotic coma 
     C.    Hypoglycemia
     D.    diabetic neuropathy
Ans: B
 
8.    The nurse enters a diabetic patient's room at 11:30 and notices that the patient is diaphoretic, tachycardic, anxious, states she is hungry, and doesn't remember where she is.  This patient is most likely showing signs of what?
    
     A.    hyperglycemic
     B.    hypoglycemic 
     C.    diabetic ketoacidosis
     D.    hyperosmolar hyperglycemic noketotic coma
Ans: B
 
9.    The nurse's first action upon finding a patient with mild hypoglycemia is to...
    
     A.    Call the rapid response team
     B.    Give 1 mg of glucagon
     C.    Give 10-15 g of CHO or Orange juice 
     D.    Give insulin
Ans: C
 
10.    What is the number one complication of diabetes?
    
     A.    Diabetic ketoacidosis
     B.    Obesity
     C.    Hypertension
     D.    Cardiovascular disease 
Ans: D
 
11.    A urine test in an undiagnosed diabetic may show........
    
     A.    glucose and ketones in the urine 
     B.    glucose and high amounts of bilirubin in the urine
     C.    ketones in the urine
     D.    ketones and adrenaline in the urine
Ans: A
 
12.    If a person has a fasting plasma glucose of 6.8mmol/L and a two-hour postprandial plasma glucose of 11.6mmol/L, should this person be suspected of having diabetes?
    
     A.    Yes 
     B.    No
     C.    Cannot decide
Ans: A
 
13.    A woman has a fasting plasma glucose of 5.9mmol/L and a two-hour postprandial plasma glucose of 7.6mmol/L. Are these values normal?
    
     A.    No.
     B.    Yes, according to the American Diabetes Association guidelines
     C.    Yes, according to the World Health Organisation guidelines 
Ans: C
 
14.    If a person has a random plasma glucose of 8mmol/L, is it normal?
    
     A.    Yes
     B.    No
     C.    Not possible to tell 
Ans: C
 
15.    There are a range of glucose values called "impaired glucose tolerance". What is the significance to a person who has impaired glucose tolerance?
    
     A.    The person has an increased risk of developing diabetes
     B.    The person has an increased cardiovascular risk
     C.    Both the above 
     D.    None of the above
Ans: C
 
16.    Can the onset of new diabetes be prevented or delayed?
    
     A.    Yes 
     B.    No
Ans: A
 
17.    Are there any laboratory tests to distinguish between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?
    
     A.    Yes 
     B.    No
Ans: A
 
18.    Which statement below is CORRECT regarding initiation of long term insulin therapy in diabetes?
    
     A.    Patients with Type 1 diabetes should be initiated on basal insulin alone
     B.    Patients with Type 1 diabetes should be initiated on prandial insulin alone
     C.    Patients with Type 2 diabetes should be initiated on basal insulin alone 
     D.    Patients with Type 2 diabetes should be initiated on prandial insulin alone
Ans: C
 
19.    Which statement below is TRUE with regard to these two insulin preparations:
1. Insulatard Insulin (NPH insulin.
2. Mixtard insulin (a pre-mixed combination of short acting and long acting insulin.
    
     A.    Insulatard insulin and Mixtard insulin can be given at bedtime without the need for a bedtime snack
     B.    Mixtard insulin can be given at bedtime without the need for a bedtime snack
     C.    Insulatard insulin can be given at bedtime without the need for a bedtime snack 
Ans: C
 
20.    Which of the statements below is true when initiating insulin in a Type 2 diabetic who is already on Metformin and Glibenclamide?
    
     A.    Both the oral drugs must be stopped
     B.    Metformin must be stopped or the dose reduced
     C.    Glibenclamide must be stopped or the dose reduced 
Ans: C
 
21.    A patient with diabetes on Metformin and Glibenclamide is scheduled for a coronary angiogram. His diabetic control is good. Which of the statements below is TRUE?
    
     A.    Both the drugs must be stopped before the procedure and blood sugar must be controlled with insulin
     B.    Metformin must be stopped before the procedure 
     C.    Glibenclamide must be stopped before the procedure
     D.    No changes need to be made. He can undergo the procedure.
Ans: B
 
22.    Which statement below regarding the use of intravenous insulin for treating diabetic ketoacidosis is TRUE?
    
     A.    Insulin should be given IV until the blood sugar is normal
     B.    Insulin should be given IV until the acidotic state is controlled 
     C.    Insulin should be given IV until the patient is well hydrated
Ans: B
 
23.    What is the best method of controlling blood sugar in a diabetic who cannot take orally?
    
     A.    Fixed dose insulin according to body weight given subcutaneously
     B.    Insulin given subcutaneously according to a sliding scale
     C.    Insulin given intravenously along with dextrose and potassium 
Ans: C
 
24.    Is this statement true or false?
The glycosylated hemoglobin value is a useful parameter when making decisions regarding the need for insulin in a Type 2 diabetic.
    
     A.    True 
     B.    False
Ans: A

25.    Which type of diabetes is more common in children?
    
     A.    Diabetes I
     B.    Diabetes II 
Ans: B
 
26.    Mickey's insulin gives her the lowest CBG 5 hrs after injection.  Which insulin is Mickey taking?
    
     A.    Novolog
     B.    NPH
     C.    NovologR
     D.    Lantus 
Ans: D
 
27.    The nurse has to give the pt HumologR.  The nurse understands the medication when the nurse states the peak time is:
    
     A.    1-3 hr
     B.    2-4 hr 
     C.    4-12 hr
     D.    5 hrs
Ans: B
 
28.    Ben comes into the ED with blurred vision.  He has polyuria and complains of pain in his legs.  Labs show that he has elevated insulin levels and high triglyceride levels.  Ben also complains of always being thirsty.  What type of Diabetes does Ben have?
    
     A.    Diabetes I
     B.    Diabetes II 
Ans: B
 
29.    The nurse understands NovologR and when it ends by stating it ends:
    
     A.    3-5 hrs
     B.    3-6.5 hrs
     C.    5-7 hrs 
     D.    18-24 hrs
     E.    24 hrs
Ans: C
 
30.    Can an infection cause a rise in GLU?
    
     A.    Yes 
     B.    No
Ans: A
 
31.    Tony has to check his BG 5 days a week before breakfast and periodically at other times.  He notices a rise of BG when he is sick.  What type of diabetic is Tony?
    
     A.    Diabetes I
     B.    Diabetes II (Missed.
     C.    Insulin Dependent
     D.    Non Insulin Dependent (Missed.
Ans: A,C
 
32.    Ted is taking NPH insulin.  The nurse knows Ted understands his medication when he states:
    
     A.    It can start working in 10-30 minutes
     B.    It can start working 1-2 hours after injection. 
     C.    Peak action is 4-12 hours 
     D.    It stays in the system 18-24 hrs. 
Ans: A
 
33.    Which type of insulin cannot be manually mixed in a syringe?
    
     A.    Novolog
     B.    Humolog
     C.    NPH
     D.    Regular
     E.    Lantus 
Ans: E
 
34.    The nurse understands Novolog when the nurse states the end time is:
    
     A.    3-5 hrs
     B.    3-6.5 hrs 
     C.    5-7 hrs
     D.    18-24 hrs
Ans: B
 
35.    Nick was given Novolog insulin.  The nurse knows that his breakfast should be available to Nick how many minutes after taking his meds?
    
     A.    immediately to 2.5 hrs 
     B.    2-4 hrs
     C.    4-12 hrs
     D.    5 hrs
Ans: A
 
36.    Mary has a skin infection that wont go away.  Her BP is 135/90.  She has dark amber urine.  She also reports that she has reoccurring vaginal infections. Her GLU comes back at 135.  What type of diabetes does she have?
    
     A.    LADA
     B.    Diabetes I
     C.    Diabetes II
     D.    Pre Diabetes 
Ans: D
 
37.    NIDDM acounts for 90% of diabetics.  What are some thing that a NIDDM diabetic could do to help their disease?
    
     A.    Avoid exercise
     B.    reduce body fat by 5% 
     C.    maintain excellent skin health 
     D.    Rub lotion in their feet, but no in between their toes. 
Ans: A
 
38.    Lucy has just given birth.  She had  gestational diabetes and did not have to take insulin.  She is very concerned that will now have to take insulin for the rest of her life.  What does a nurse say to educate Lucy about her condition?
    
     A.    Proper instruction of foot care.
     B.    25-50% of women will eventually develop type 2 diabetes.
     C.    Losing the baby fat will help. 
     D.    Education on what type of insulin she will need.
Ans: A,D
 
39.    Bill is in the ED presenting with a BP of 60/45 and is responsive to painful stimuli.  His Na is 180 and BUN is 65.  His wife states he is a type 2 diabetic but has been sticking to his diet.  His insulin lab came back low.  What is wrong with Bill?
    
     A.    Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Nonketoitic Syndrome 
     B.    Diabetic Ketacidosis
     C.    LADA
     D.    Hyperglycemic
Ans: A

40.    Ana is a long distance runner with diabetes.  She understands her need for testing when she states:
    
     A.    i should test before and after exercise 
     B.    I should test after exercise
     C.    I should test before and after each meal and bedtime
     D.    If I feel like my BG is low, I should test 
Ans: B,C

41.    Cynthia is getting NovologR.  The nurse knows that Cynthia needs more education when she states:
    
     A.    I need to check my BG throughout the day.
     B.    I need to be consistent with insulin usage.
     C.    I need to eat a large meal before taking my insulin 
     D.    My insulin can be in my system for 5-7 hours.
Ans: C
 
42.    Manifestations of hypoglycemia would entail:
    
     A.    Anxiety 
     B.    Hyperactions
     C.    Tachycardia 
     D.    Confusion 
Ans: B
 
43.    Insulin is measure in:
    
     A.    Ml
     B.    Dl
     C.    units 
     D.    Tsp
Ans: C
 
44.    Which is most dangerous?
    
     A.    hypoglycemia 
     B.    Hyperglycemia
Ans: A
 
45.    Nathan's AIC comes back at 9%.  The nurse understands this value by stating to the pt:
    
     A.    Your diabetes is under control.
     B.    Your diabetes has shifted to Diabetes I.
     C.    Your diabetes needs further intervention. 
     D.    Call the coroner and make an appointment if you don't plan on taking this more seriously!
Ans: C
 
46.    After giving insulin, what is the most critical observation that needs to be made?
    
     A.    Tachycardia
     B.    Bradycardia
     C.    Hyperglycemia
     D.    Hypoglycemia 
Ans: D
 
47.    The nurse understand NPH when the nurse says NPH ends:
    
     A.    after a heavy meal
     B.    18-24 hrs after injection 
     C.    12 hrs after injection
     D.    When HumologR has been injected.
Ans: B
 
48.    What risk factors increase diabetic foot problems?
    
     A.    Sensory neuropathy 
     B.    PVD 
     C.    Smoking 
     D.    Alcohol
Ans: D
 
49.    Humolog begins to take affect:
    
     A.    15 min 
     B.    10-30 min
     C.    30-60 min
     D.    1-2 hrs
     E.    1.1 hrs 
Ans: A
 
50.    Linda is taking Lantus.  She understands her medication when she states:
    
     A.    it can start in 1.1 hr. 
     B.    peaks 4-12 hours
     C.    it ends in 24 hrs 
     D.    it cannot be mixed with other insulins in the same syringe. 
Ans: B
 
51.    Lupe is in the ED.  She has anorexia, abdominal pain, acetone breath, polyuria and is confused.  She has ketones present in her urine. She is pre diabetic with a glu of 650.  What is Lupe's problem?
    
     A.    She was misdiagnosed and should be a type 1 diabetic.
     B.    Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Nonketoitic Syndrome
     C.    Diabetic Ketacidosis 
     D.    LADA
Ans: C
 
52.    Gladus is in for her physical.  She is a 54 year old woman with a lot of energy.  She is mildly overweight.  Her BP is 130/85.  As part of her physical, the doctor discovers her GLU is 350.  He orders a fasting plasma glucose and her levels come back 130 the first day and 275 the second day.  What does this indicate?
    
     A.    Diabetes I
     B.    Diabetes II 
     C.    LADA
Ans: B
 
53.    Nicole is a chronic alcoholic.  She drinks a bottle of wine every night and hard liquor on the weekends.  She has been fatigued and has blurry vision.  The doctor tells her she now has diabetes II.  She doesn't understand how she could have diabetes as it does not run in her family.  What education would the nurse give to the patient?
    
     A.    Explain that the alcohol caused her diabetes. 
     B.    Insulin will not be affected by her drinking
     C.    Encourage her to attend AA meeting even though she doesn't want to.
     D.    Using therapeutic communication, help her to see that this is her fault and must accept she has ruined her life.
Ans: A
 
54.    Neuropathy occurs only in type 2 diabetics?
    
     A.    Yes
     B.    No 
Ans: B

55.    Pat is a 45 year old female presenting with 83/60 BP, and elivated BUN and a GLU of 879.  She reports that she is not on a diet but has been losing weight rapidly and has fatigue.  What type of diabetes does she have?
    
     A.    Diabetes I
     B.    Diabetes II
     C.    LADA 
Ans: C
 
56.    NPH insulin has been prescribed to the pt.  The nurse understands NPH when the nurse states:
    
     A.    NPH acts quickly.
     B.    NPH peaks at 4-12 hrs 
     C.    NPH is a mixture of rapid and slow acting 
     D.    NPH low CBG will most likely be around 5 hrs.
Ans: A,D
 
57.    Hypoglycemia is related to :
    
     A.    reduced insulin and increased glucose
     B.    increased insulin and reduced glucose
     C.    may occur when very high blood glucose falls too rapidly 
     D.    failure to eat 
Ans: A
 
58.    The nurse understands NPH and how quickly it starts when the nurse states:
    
     A.    10-30 min
     B.    30-60 min
     C.    1-2 hrs 
     D.    1.1 hours
Ans: C
 
59.    HumologR has been given to Melisa at 13:30.  When would Melisa need her snack or lunch?
    
     A.    14:30
     B.    16:30
     C.    15:30 
     D.    14:00
Ans: C
 
60.    Keith has just been diagnosed with diabetes.  His diabetes is an autoimmune disorder.  He has lost 15 lbs in two weeks and has polyuria.  His BP was 75/45 on admission.  What type of diabetes does Keith have?
    
     A.    Diabetes I
     B.    Diabetes II
Ans: A
 
61.    What substance is found in the blood and urine of an undiagnosed diabetic?
    
     A.    insulin
     B.    adrenaline
     C.    ketones 
     D.    bilirubin
Ans: C

62.    A normal FASTING blood glucose in a non-diabetic is
    
     A.    80 to 110 
     B.    40 to 80
     C.    120 to 150
     D.    150 to 200
Ans: A
 
63.    Hyperglycemia is when......
    
     A.    the blood sugar is too low
     B.    the blood sugar is normal
     C.    there is sugar in the urine
     D.    the blood sugar is too high 
Ans: D
 
64.    If diabetes goes untreated for a long time, what disease can develop? HINT:patients must be hospitalized for successful treatment of this condition
    
     A.    hypoglycemia
     B.    diabeticketoacidosis 
     C.    ketosis
     D.    hyperglycemia
     E.    ketourina
Ans: B
 
65.    What are the three  most COMMON  symptoms of diabetes?
    
     A.    headaches vomiting constant illness
     B.    intolerable thirst constant urination weight loss 
     C.    double vision infections constant urination
     D.    tingling of the feet slow healing wounds weight loss
     E.    intolerable thirst vomiting heart burn
Ans: B
 
66.    What is one cause of diabetes? MORE THAN ONE RIGHT ANSWER
    
     A.    virus 
     B.    antibody mistake 
     C.    too much sweets
     D.    genetics 
     E.    bacteria
Ans: C,E
 
67.    Name both types of diabetes SCIENTIFICLY
    
     A.    Type 1 and Type 2
     B.    Old Diabetes and Young Diabetes
     C.    Juvenile Diabetes and Adult-Onset Diabetes 
     D.    Brittle Diabetes and Insulin Dependant Diabetes
Ans: C
 
68.    Can diabetes kill you?
    
     A.    Yes 
     B.    No
     C.    Only if you're a certain race
Ans: A
 
69.    An insulin pump's site must be changed......
    
     A.    once a week
     B.    never
     C.    every three days 
     D.    every day
     E.    every five days
Ans: C
 
70.    Aspart insulin is also referred to as......
    
     A.    long acting insulin
     B.    short acting insulin 
     C.    intermediate acting insulin
Ans: B
 
71.    Why does a  Long-Acting-Insulin shot hurt more than a Short-Acting-Insulin shot
    
     A.    Because it is a bigger shot
     B.    Because Long-Acting-Insulin has preservatives in it to keep it working the full 20 to 24 hours 
     C.    Because you use a different needle to deliver Long-Acting-Insulin
Ans: B
 
72.    If a person does not like the insulin needle or pump, they want might to try the......
    
     A.    syringe
     B.    moniter
     C.    pen 
     D.    inhaler
Ans: C
 
73.    About how many Americans have diabetes
    
     A.    5 million
     B.    47 million
     C.    21 million 
     D.    16 million
     E.    33 million
Ans: C
 
74.    What food can make you have a high blood sugar?
    
     A.    nuts
     B.    water
     C.    yogurt
     D.    pizza 
     E.    bread
Ans: D
 
75.    A urine test in an undiagnosed diabetic may show........
    
     A.    glucose and ketones in the urine 
     B.    glucose and high amounts of bilirubin in the urine
     C.    ketones in the urine
     D.    ketones and adrenaline in the urine
Ans: A
 
76.    A slice of bread has about how many carbohydrates?
    
     A.    5 carbs
     B.    30 carbs
     C.    15 carbs 
     D.    no carbs
     E.    25 carbs
Ans: C
 
77.    Which is not true about Diabetes?
    
     A.    the blood sugar may go out of control
     B.    the person may be hospitalized if they are not treating the diabetes
     C.    Diabetes can be completely cured 
     D.    diabetes can be associated with nausea
Ans: C
 
78.    When you are sick, the blood sugar may.......
    
     A.    be normal
     B.    very low
     C.    higher than usual 
     D.    lower than usual
Ans: C
 
79.    In a newly-diagnosed patient who is in the hospital, their first major goal is to.....
    
     A.    have their blood sugars go back to normal
     B.    clear their ketones 
     C.    get an insulin pump
Ans: B
 
80.    Ketones are produced by.........
    
     A.    not having insulin
     B.    a high blood sugar
     C.    fat breakdown 
     D.    passing urine with sugar in it
Ans: C
 
81.    What are the 3 main factors to success with diabetes?
    
     A.    food exercise insulin 
     B.    food insulin ketones
     C.    exercise ketones insulin
Ans: A
 
82.    People with diabetes can lead normal lives?
    
     A.    Yes 
     B.    No
     C.    Only some
Ans: A
 
83.    Diabetes is a world wide disease
    
     A.    True 
     B.    False
Ans: A
 
84.    Which of the following is a symptom of diabetes?
    
     A.    Pregnancy
     B.    Mood Swings
     C.    Blurred Vision 
     D.    Loss of Hearing
Ans: C
 
85.    What is the medicine that is injected into your body by a needle?
    
     A.    Insulin 
     B.    Sugar
     C.    Glucose
     D.    Diabetic Solution
Ans: A
 
86.    What is a test you can get at the doctor to see if you have diabetes?
    
     A.    Blood Test 
     B.    X-ray
     C.    MRI
     D.    Diabetes test
Ans: A
 
87.    How many different types of diabetes are there?
    
     A.    1
     B.    2 
     C.    3
     D.    5
Ans: B
 
88.     Secretory product associated with pancreatic alpha cells:
    
     A.    A. insulin
     B.    B. proglucagon 
     C.    C. somatostatin
     D.    D. pancreatic polypeptide
     E.    E. insulin and somatostatin
Ans: B
 
89.   Major manisfestations of diabetes mellitus:
    
     A.    A. inappropriate hyperglycemia
     B.    B. disordered metabolism
     C.    C. both 
     D.    D. neither
Ans: C
 
90.     Type I diabetes:
    
     A.    A. most often presents in adults
     B.    B. anabolic metabolic disorder
     C.    C. circulating insulin is virtually absent 
     D.    D. glucagon levels are low
     E.    E. ketoacidosis is rarely seen
Ans: C
 
91.    Extrinsic factors which may affect pancreatic B cell function:
    
     A.    A. mumps virus
     B.    B. toxic chemicals
     C.    C. coxsackievirus
     D.    D. mumps virus and toxic chemicals
     E.    E. mumps virus, toxic chemicals and coxsakievirus 
Ans: E
 
92.    What is prediabetes?
    
     A.    When blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough for diagnosis. 
     B.    When your diabetes is in submission until you turn forty
Ans: A
 
93.    Type 1 diabetes was previously known as what?
    
     A.    Endrino diabetes
     B.    Juvenile diabetes 
Ans: B
 
94.    What is the most common type of diabetes?
    
     A.    Type 1 diabetes
     B.    Type 2 diabetes 
     C.    Pre-diabetes
Ans: B
 
95.    There is always symptoms when you have diabetes.
    
     A.    True
     B.    False 
Ans: B
 
96.    Type I diabetes is characterized by:
    
     A.    resistance to insulin
     B.    autoantibodies 
     C.    complicated by HHS
Ans: B
 

1.healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and?
    
     A.    color 
     B.    pallor
     C.    dryness
     D.    dullness
     Ans: A   
 
2.what is the technical name for the study, including its structure, functions and treatment?
    
     A.    etiology
     B.    anatomy
     C.    pathology
     D.    dermatology 
     Ans: D       
 
3.the outermost layer of the skin is called the ?
    
     A.    corium
     B.    dermis
     C.    adipose
     D.    epidermis 
     Ans: D       
 
4.which of the following layers of skin does not contain and blood vessels?
    
     A.    cutis
     B.    dermis
     C.    corium
     D.    epidermis 
     Ans: D       
 
5.what is another name for the stratum germinativum?
    
     A.    epidermis
     B.    dermal layer
     C.    stratum lucidum
     D.    basal layer or stratum basale 
     Ans: D       
 
6.Where does mitosis (cell division) or replacment of the skin take place?
    
     A.    stratum lucidum
     B.    stratum corneum
     C.    stratum granulosm
     D.    statum greminativum 
     Ans: D       
 
7.the stratum germinativm and what other layer of skin contain melanin?
    
     A.    dermis
     B.    subcutaneous
     C.    stratum corneum
     D.    stratum spinosum 
     Ans: D       
 
8.on the human body, the thickest skin is located on the:
    
     A.    thighs
     B.    buttocks
     C.    abdomen
     D.    palms and soles 
     Ans: D
 
9.The layer of the epidermis that sheds keratin cells that are constantly replaced is the? 
    
     A.    stratum lucidum
     B.    stratum corneum 
     C.    stratum mucosum
     D.    stratum granlosum
     Ans: B       
 
10.what quality is notable about the stratum corneum?
    
     A.    it is the thinnest layer of skin
     B.    it is the weakest layer of skin
     C.    it is the toughest layer of skin 
     D.    it is lowermost layer of skin
     Ans: C       
 
11.the stratum corneum is composed of ?
    
     A.    melanin
     B.    granules
     C.    keratin cells 
     D.    squamous cells
     Ans: C       
 
12.which layer is the top, or uppermost, layer of the epidermis?
    
     A.    dermis
     B.    stratum corneum 
     C.    stratum mucosum
     D.    stratum granulosum
     Ans: B       
 
13.where are the blood vessels found that supply the skin?
    
     A.    dermis 
     B.    epidermis
     C.    stratum lucidum
     D.    stratum corneum
     Ans: A       
 
14.sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands sensory nerve endings, blood vessels, arrector pili muscles and a major    portion of each hair follicle are found in the ?
     A.    dermis 
     B.    epidermis
     C.    stratum corneum
     D.    startum spinosum
     Ans: A       
 
15.what part of the skin is often referred to as "true skin"

     A.    dermis 
     B.    epidermis
     C.    stratum corneum
     D.    stratum spinosum
     Ans: A
 
16.which layer of the skin produces collgen protein and elastin fibers to help give the skin its elasicity and pliability?
    
     A.    dermis 
     B.    epidermis
     C.    stratum lucidum
     D.    stratum graninativum
     Ans: A       
 
17.the deterioration of collagen and elastiin fibers during fibers during the aging process causes?
    
     A.    rosacea
     B.    freckles
     C.    macules
     D.    wrinkles 
     Ans: D       
 
18.what is major function of the sudoriferous gland?
    
     A.    gives skin texture
     B.    gives skin a healthy color
     C.    protects the skin's elasticity
     D.    helps to regulate body temperature 
     Ans: D   
 
19.sweat or perspitation is secreted by what gland?
    
     A.    adrenal
     B.    endocrine
     C.    sebaceous
     D.    sudoriferous 
     Ans: D       
 
20.the small openings onto the skin from the sudoriferous glands are called ?
    
     A.    ducts
     B.    pores 
     C.    glands
     D.    follicles
     Ans: B       
 
21.the sudoriferous (sweat) glands are referred to as:
    
     A.    nervous system 
     B.    muscular system
     C.    endocrine system
     D.    circulatory system
     Ans: A
 
22.sudoriferous and sebaceous glands are referred to as ?
    
     A.    pores
     B.    follicles
     C.    duct glands 
     D.    ductless glands
     Ans: C       
 
23.control and regilation of body temperature by the sudoriferous glands help maintan the body temperture at?
    
     A.    78.0 f or 29.4 c
     B.    94.0 f or 87.9 c
     C.    88.6 f or 37 c
     D.    98.6 f or 37 c 
     Ans: D       
 
24.the greatest concentration of sudorferous glands is found on the?
    
     A.    arms
     B.    eyelids
     C.    midsection of the body
     D.    palms, soles,scalp and forehead and underarms 
     Ans: D       
 
25.the sebaceous gland produces:
    
     A.    melanin
     B.    dandruff
     C.    sebum (oil. 
     D.    perspiration
     Ans: C       
 
26. on what area of the body would you not find any sebaceous glands?
    
     A.    the face
     B.    in the groin area
     C.    on the arms and legs
     D.    on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet 
     Ans: D       
 
27.what is the function of sebum?
    
     A.    carry melanin
     B.    produce sweat
     C.    give skin elasticity
     D.    keep skin from drying and chapping 
     Ans: D       
 
28.the papillary canal take oil (sebum) to the?
    
     A.    nerve
     B.    keratin
     C.    blood vessels
     D.    surface of the skin 
     Ans: D       
 
29.where is the layer of skin called the subcutaneous layer located ?
    
     A.    above the cuticle
     B.    below the dermis 
     C.    above the epidermis
     D.    below the adipose tissue
     Ans: B       
 
30.the subcutaneous tissue of skin is made up of mostly?
    
     A.    keratin
     B.    muscle
     C.    melanin
     D.    fatty cells 
     Ans: D       
 
31.what layer of the skin contains large blood vessels that transport nouishment to skin and nerve ?
    
     A.    epidermis
     B.    melanin layer
     C.    spinum spinosum
     D.    subcutaneous layer 
     Ans: D       
 
32.what factor would cause a reaction in sensory nerve fibers?
    
     A.    fear
     B.    light
     C.    sound
     D.    cold temperatures 
     Ans: D       
 
33.what tans the skin to help protect it from harmful ultraviolet rays?
    
     A.    sebum
     B.    melanin 
     C.    the acid mantle
     D.    the subcutaneous layer
     Ans: B       
 
34.light skin and dark skin differ in the ?
    
     A.    number of melanocytes the contain
     B.    rate and amount of melanin produced 
     C.    number of nerve endings the contain
     D.    number of epidermal cells they contain
     Ans: B       
 
35.almost 90% of the skin's wrinkles are caused by ?
    
     A.    exposure to the sun 
     B.    exposure to pollutants
     C.    excessive use of astringents
     D.    excessive exposure to fluorescent lights
     Ans: A       
 
36.on the human body, the thinnest skin is located on the ?
    
     A.    chin
     B.    eyelids 
     C.    soles of the feet
     D.    skull just behind the ears
     Ans: B       
 
37.healthy skin's pH level of 4.5 to 5.5 is?
    
     A.    highly acidic
     B.    acid-balanced 
     C.    highly alkaline
     D.    slightly alkaline
     Ans: B       
 
38.how should a salon profession react if the client has a skin disease?
    
     A.    prescribe proper treatment
     B.    suggest home remedies to client
     C.    perform the service while wearing gloves
     D.    refer client to a physician or dermatologist 
     Ans: D       
 
39.chronic is the term used to identify condition that are ?
    
     A.    visible
     B.    brief and severe
     C.    frequent and habitual 
     D.    influenced by weather
     Ans: C       
 
40.the term used to identify conditions that are brief and severe is ?
    
     A.    acute 
     B.    chronic
     C.    objective
     D.    subjective
     Ans: A       
 
41.a disease that spreads by personal contact is known as? 
    
     A.    systemic
     B.    congenital
     C.    contagious 
     D.    occupational
     Ans: C       
 
42.a disease influenced by weather is referred to as?
    
     A.    serial
     B.    rational
     C.    seasonal 
     D.    inflammable
     Ans: C       
 
43.what is the technical name for the study of the cause of diseases?
    
     A.    etiology 
     B.    anatomy
     C.    pathology
     D.    dermatology
     Ans: A       
 
44.what is the technical term for the study of deseases?
    
     A.    eitology
     B.    anatomy
     C.    pathology 
     D.    dermatology
     Ans: C       
 
45.indicating a medical opinion of a future condition of illness is known as a(an.?
    
     A.    analysis
     B.    diagnosis
     C.    prognosis 
     D.    recognition
    Ams: c       
 
46.an alleegic reaction to cosmetics or chemicals which salon professionals may be susceptible to is called?
    
     A.    papules
     B.    chloasma
     C.    lenigines
     D.    sermatitis venenata 
     Ans: D       
 
47.an example of a subjective symptom would be?
    
     A.    itching 
     B.    swelling
     C.    redness
     D.    discharge
     Ans: A       
 
48.abnormal changes in the structure of organs or tissues are called primary and secondary?
    
     A.    wheal
     B.    fissure
     C.    lesions 
     D.    infection
     Ans: C       
 
49.a freckle is an example of which type of primary skin lesion?
    
     A.    lentigo
     B.    papule
     C.    macule 
     D.    leukoderma
     Ans: C       
 
50.a papule is an example of a ?
    
     A.    tertiary lesion
     B.    primary skin lesion 
     C.    subjective symptom
     D.    secondary skin lesion
     Ans: B       
 
51.vesicles can be produced by which of the following conditions?
    
     A.    callus
     B.    verrucas
     C.    poison ivy 
     D.    dry, scaly skin
     Ans: C       
 
52.herpes simplex is the technical term for?
    
     A.    acne
     B.    eczema
     C.    psoriasis
     D.    fever blisters 
     Ans: D       
 
53.a solid mass in the skin that could be soft or hard, fixed or freely movable and may be elevated or deep is     called a ?
    
     A.    crust
     B.    callus
     C.    tumor 
     D.    wheal
     Ans: C       
 
54.a cyst is defined by which of the following description?
    
     A.    oozing sore
     B.    wheal lesions
     C.    crack in the skin
     D.    abnormal membranous sac 
     Ans: D       
 
55.a secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvert scales is called?
    
     A.    acne
     B.    eczema
     C.    psoriasis 
     D.    herpes simplex
     Ans: C       
 
56.which of the following skin lesions often occurs when skin loses its flesibility due to exposure to wind, cold, water, etc and cracks in the skin appear?
    
     A.    stain
     B.    tumor
     C.    fissure 
     D.    papule
     Ans: C       
 
57.the lesion found following the healing of an injury is called a(n.?
    
     A.    vitiligo
     B.    fissure
     C.    scar 
     D.    excoriation
     Ans: C       
 
58.which of the following terms is another name for a keratoma?
    
     A.    a wart
     B.    a callus 
     C.    a tumor
     D.    a birthmark
     Ans: B       
 
59.what may happen to the skin if an area is subject to pressure or friction over a long period of time?
    
     A.    it may wear thin
     B.    it may become shiny
     C.    it may scale and flake
     D.    it may become callused 
     Ans: D       
 
60.verruca is a name given to a variety of?
    
     A.    warts 
     B.    ulcers
     C.    fissures
     D.    skin tags
     Ans: A       
 
61.melanotic sarcoma is a skin cancer that begins with?
    
     A.    a mole 
     B.    an ulcer
     C.    lentigines
     D.    miliaria rubra
     Ans: A       
 
62.what is the technical name for liver spots?
    
     A.    rubra
     B.    crustacea
     C.    chloasma 
     D.    leukoderma
     Ans: C       
 
63.what is another name for a stain in the skin caused by the dilation of the small blood vessels in the skin, also known as a birthmark?
    
     A.    scar
     B.    callus
     C.    nevus 
     D.    verruca
     Ans: C       
 
64.comedone is the technical name for?
    
     A.    nevus
     B.    macule
     C.    blackhead 
     D.    whitehead
     Ans: C       
 
65.what is the techical term for a decrease in activity of melanocytes?
    
     A.    acne
     B.    verruca
     C.    leukoderma 
     D.    melanoderma
     Ans: C       
 
66.accumulations of hardened sebum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or:
    
     A.    acne
     B.    milia 
     C.    rosacea
     D.    comedones
     Ans: B       
 
67.acne most often occurs on the ?
    
     A.    legs, hips, and arms
     B.    face, back and chest 
     C.    fingers, toes and soles
     D.    ankles, knees and elbow
     Ans: B       
 
68.ance can be found in two stages, acne simplex and:
    
     A.    rosacea
     B.    asteatosis
     C.    acne vulagarsis 
     D.    deep-seated acne
     Ans: C       
 
69.what is the professinal action to take when a client with rosacea requests a facial service with you?
    
     A.    refer clients to another salon
     B.    avoid the issue of rosacea
     C.    proceed with the service but wear protective gloves
     D.    proceed with the service with approval of the client's physician 
     Ans: D       
 
70.what is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin caused by a decreased production of sebum?
    
     A.    rosacea
     B.    steatoma
     C.    asteatosis 
     D.    seborrhea
     Ans: C       
 
71.which disorder is caused by excessive secretion of the sebaceous glands?
    
     A.    millia
     B.    asteatosis
     C.    seborrhea 
     D.    bromidrosis
     Ans: C       
 
72.where does a steatoma most often appear?
    
     A.    on the arms, legs and chest
     B.    on the face, feet and hands
     C.    on the fingers, feet and toes
     D.    on the scalp, neck and back 
     Ans: D       
 
73.what is the definition of bromidrosis?
    
     A.    excessive sebum
     B.    the lack of sebum
     C.    the lack of perspiration
     D.    foul-smelling perspiration 
     Ans: D       
 
74.the lack of perspiration caused by fever or disease is called?
    
     A.    anhidrosis 
     B.    osmidrosis
     C.    bromidrosis
     D.    hyperhidrosis
     Ans: A       
 
75.what is the disorder called that is an overproduction of perspiration caused by excessive heat or general body    weakness?
    
     A.    osmidrosis
     B.    anhidrosis
     C.    bromidrosis
     D.    hyperhidosis 
     Ans: D       
 
76.which of the following terms does NOT describe a guideline that can indicate skin cancer?
    
     A.    color
     B.    border
     C.    texture 
     D.    asymmetry
     Ans: C       
 
77.products that work tofurther cleanse the skin and return it to its normal pH include?
;
    
     A.    oils
     B.    massage creams
     C.    manual exfoliants
     D.    astringents and tonic lotions 
     Ans: D       
 
78.a term that is used to describe moisturizing is ?
    
     A.    oiling
     B.    toning
     C.    hydrating 
     D.    cleansing
     Ans: C       
 
79.applying pressure to motor points will have which of the following effects?
    
     A.    inflame and irrtate muscles
     B.    increase secretion
     C.    decrease production
     D.    soothe and stimulate nerves and muscles 
     Ans: D       
 
80. effleurage is a massage movement that involves a:
    
     A.    circular movement with no gliding
     B.    light tapping or slapping movement
     C.    light, gentle stroking or circular movement 
     D.    light or heavy kneading and rolling of muscles
     Ans: C       
 
81.the gentle massage movement  that often begins and ends a massage treatment is ?
    
     A.    vibration
     B.    effleurage 
     C.    petrissage
     D.    tapotement
     Ans: B       
 
82.the massage manipulation that consists of heavy kneading and rolling of the muscles is called:
    
     A.    friction
     B.    vibration
     C.    petrissage 
     D.    tapotement
     Ans: C       
 
83.which massage manipulation deeply stimules the muscles, nerves and skin glands?
    
     A.    friction
     B.    vibration
     C.    petrissage 
     D.    tapotement
    Ans: C       
 
84.the massage movement that should not be used when the client needs soothing is?
    
     A.    gliding
     B.    stroking
     C.    effleurage
     D.    tapotement 
     Ans: D